In the fast-paced world of digital marketing, staying ahead of the curve is not just an option; it's a necessity. As businesses strive to amplify their online presence, tools like Edelman SPI come to the forefront, promising a seamless integration of strategy, planning, and implementation. In this in-depth review, we'll dissect the Edelman SPI, exploring its features, benefits, and potential pitfalls. So, buckle up as we embark on a journey through the intricacies of this intriguing platform.
Understanding Edelman SPI: Decoding the Acronym
Before we dive into the nitty-gritty, let's demystify the acronym. SPI stands for Strategic Planning and Implementation, a telltale sign of Edelman's commitment to providing a comprehensive solution for businesses aiming to navigate the intricate landscape of digital marketing strategically.
Unveiling the Interface: A User-Friendly Odyssey
Upon entering the Edelman SPI portal, users are greeted with an interface designed with simplicity in mind. The dashboard beckons with a user-friendly layout, making it accessible for both seasoned marketing professionals and newcomers alike. This intuitive design minimizes the learning curve, ensuring that users can hit the ground running.
Features that Pack a Punch: Edelman SPI's Arsenal
1. Data-Driven Decision Making
In the realm of digital marketing, data is the kingpin. Edelman SPI stands out by offering robust analytics tools that empower users to make informed decisions based on real-time data. The platform's ability to transform raw data into actionable insights is a game-changer for marketers aiming to fine-tune their strategies.
2. Seamless Collaboration
In the spirit of teamwork, Edelman SPI facilitates seamless collaboration among team members. With features like real-time document sharing and collaborative editing, the platform fosters an environment where ideas can flourish and campaigns can evolve organically.
3. Customizable Campaign Blueprints
Every business is unique, and Edelman SPI recognizes this fact. The platform allows users to create highly customizable campaign blueprints, tailoring strategies to align with specific business goals. This adaptability ensures that the platform isn't a one-size-fits-all solution but a dynamic tool that can evolve with the ever-changing landscape of digital marketing.
Navigating the Potential Challenges: Burstiness in Action
1. Learning Curve
While Edelman SPI strives for user-friendliness, some users may find themselves grappling with a slight learning curve. The abundance of features can be overwhelming initially, requiring a bit of time and dedication to unlock the platform's full potential.
2. Resource Intensiveness
For smaller businesses with limited resources, the comprehensive nature of Edelman SPI might pose a challenge. The platform thrives in environments where teams can dedicate time and effort to exploit its features fully.
Conclusion: Is Edelman SPI Your Digital Companion?
In the labyrinth of digital marketing tools, Edelman SPI emerges as a robust contender, offering a comprehensive suite of features that cater to the needs of businesses striving for online dominance. While the learning curve and resource intensiveness may present hurdles, the platform's potential to elevate your digital strategy is undeniable.
So, is Edelman SPI your digital companion? The answer lies in your business goals, resources, and your team's adaptability. As you weigh the pros and cons, remember that digital marketing is a dynamic field, and the right tool can make all the difference.
Frequently Asked Questions
1. Is Edelman SPI suitable for small businesses?
Absolutely. While Edelman SPI may seem feature-rich, its customizable nature allows businesses of all sizes to tailor strategies according to their unique needs.
2. How does Edelman SPI handle data security?
Edelman SPI prioritizes data security, employing robust encryption protocols and ensuring compliance with industry standards to safeguard user data.
3. Can I integrate Edelman SPI with other marketing tools?
Yes, Edelman SPI offers seamless integrations with a variety of marketing tools, providing users with flexibility and compatibility.
4. What kind of support does Edelman SPI offer for users?
Edelman SPI provides comprehensive user support, including documentation, tutorials, and a responsive customer support team to assist users in navigating the platform.
5. Is there a trial period for Edelman SPI?
To allow users to explore its features, Edelman SPI often provides a trial period. Check the official website for the latest information on trial offerings.
1. Ultrasound Physics
This course is well-organized into an optimized twelve-hour program. By perfecting each ultrasound physics concept into a format that is easier to understand, ...
This course is well-organized into an optimized twelve-hour program. By perfecting each ultrasound physics concept into a format that is easier to understand, our students pass the ARDMS and CCI certification exams!
2. Edelmen's SPI Exam Review Test Answered 100% Correctly! - Stuvia
Mar 9, 2023 · 4. Exam (elaborations) - Edelmen's spi exam review test answered 100% correctly!
redirection of an ultrasound bean in many directions as a result of a rough boundary between two media: a) refraction b) Rayleigh Scattering c) scattering d) reflection _________ resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length a) radial b) image c) axial d) angular or C *A single element transduce is focused by a) by the manufacturer b) cannot be focused c) by increasing power d) by the sonographer *In the analog converter, what component stores the image data? a) computer memory b) video tape recorder c) diaeletric matrix d) none of the above *Which of the following will result in the highest mechanical index? a) high frequency and low power b) high intensity and high frequency c) low frequency and high signal amplitude d) low intensity and low frequency *Which of these factors has the greatest influence on pulse repetition period? a) display depth b) thickness of the PZT crystal c) attenuation of the sound beam d) impedance of the medium e) display's dynamic range *With normal incidence, what factors affect refraction of US? A) propagation speeds B) frequencies C) attenuation coefficients D) none of the above A hydrophone is used to measure: a) velocity b) frequency c) intensity d) phase or C A quality assurance program: a) is not needed in small labs b) is very time consuming and expensive c) is needed by all labs d) cannot be performed by sonographers A transducer ________ one form of ________ into another. onverts, energy A transducer with more than one active element is called: a) multipurpose b) annular c) mechanical d) array According to AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no confirmed bioeffects below intensities of ________ watts per square centimeters SPTA. a) 10 b) 0.01 c) 0.1 d) 1 e) 100 All of the following are statements regarding in-vitro bioeffects are true EXCEPT: a) in vitro bioeffect conclusions are clinically relevant b) in vitro bioeffects are always real c) in vitro bioeffects are very important d) in vitro bioeffects may not be applicable to clinical settings All of the following are true EXCEPT: a) two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively. b) constructive interference is associated with waves that are in-phase. c) out-of-phase waves interfere destructively. d) waves of different frequencies may exhibit both constructive and destructive interference at different times. All of the following are true of normal cavitation EXCEPT: a) harmful bioeffects are commonly observed b) it is also known as inertial cavitation c) only a 10% increase in pressure is needed to convert to this from table cavitation d) temperatures in the thousands of degrees are created e) it is consistent with shock waves All of the following will improve temporal resolution EXCEPT: a) increased line density b) single rather than multi focus c) higher frame rate d) shallower depth of field e) slower speed of sound in a medium An ultrasound machine has a digital scan converter but has an analog input signal. the machine needs to have a a) hydbrid multiplexer b) modem c) analog to digital converter d) digital monitor An ultrasound system is set to 0db and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 10% of full intensity? a) -3 dB b) -50 dB c) 40 dB d) 3 dB e) -10 dB - (CORRECT): E An ultrasound system is set to 0db and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 50% of full intensity? a) -3 dB b) -50 dB c) 10 dB d) 3 dB e) -10 dB As a result of _____ the propagation speed increases. a) increasing stiffness and increasing density b) increasing stiffness and increasing elasticity c) decreasing compressibility and decreasing density d) decreasing stiffness and decreasing density. As the impedance of two media become vastly different, the.... a) reflection increases b) transmission increases c) refraction increases d) absorption increases Assuming a constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased? a) the distance to the far field is reduced b) the beam width in the near field is reduced c) the beam width in the near field is increased d) the ultrasound wavelength is increased e) the sensitivity is reduced At the focus, the beam diameter is______ the diameter transducer diameter. a) equal to b) half c) double d) one-fourth Attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue id closest to: a) 3dB/1 Mhz b) 1dB/cm/10 Mhz c) 2 dB/cm d) 0.6 dB/cm/MHz Biologic effects have not been documented below what intensity? (SPTA) a) 100 w/cm b) 100 mW/ cm^2 c) 100 mW/cm^2 d) 100 mW/cm^3 or C Changing which of the following would not cause any change in a hard copy image output? a) TGC b) overall gain c) output power d) display brightness & contrast e) depth of view Circumferences may be measure in the unit of: m Compression is used to: a) decrease the amplitude b) decrease the range of amplitudes c) decrease the range of frequencies Decimal uses a bases of 10, binary uses a bases of: a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10 Enhancement, multipath, and side lobes result in: a) image distortion b) clearer images c) artifact d) resolution problems Fill-in of an anechoic structure such as a cyst is known as all of the following except? a) partial volume artifact b) slice thickness artifact c) section thickness artifact d) ghosting artifact For Doppler, what incident angle results in no shift? - (CORRECT): 90deg From a safety standpoint, which one of the following methods is best? a) low transmit output and high receiver gain b) high transmit output and low receiver gain c) high near gain and low far gain d) low near gain and high far gain e) high reject and high transmitter output How is range ambiguity artifact eliminated? a) lower the PRF b) raise the PRF c) increase the gain d) use a lower frequency transducer How many bits are needed to represent 16 shades of grey? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 How many bits are needed to represent 1024 gray shades? a) 1024 b) 8 c) 10 d) 3 e) 512 How many cm are in 60 mm? - (CORRECT): 6 How many data bits are needed to represent 46 gray shades? a) 46 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8 How many decibels is related to a 90% decrease in imaging power? a) -1 dB b) -10 dB c) -90 dB d) -100 dB Identify one o the advantages of coded excitation: a) penetration b) improved lateral resolution c) improved temporal resolution d) shorter pulse repetition period Identify one of the advantages of coded excitation a) improved contrast resolution b) improved lateral resolution c) improved temporal resolution d) shorter pulse repetition period If 3MHz sound has a 2dB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is the amount of attenuation of 6MHz sound in 0.5cm of the same tissue? a) 5 dB b) 2 dB c) 10 dB d) 1.5 dB If 300,000 cycles occur in one second, what is the frequency? a) 3 MHz b) 30 kHz c) 300 MHz d) 3 kHz e) 0.3 MHz - (CORRECT): E If a 5 MHz wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the longest wavelength? a) fat b) air c) muscle d) bone If a 5 MHz wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the shortest wavelength? a) fat b) air c) muscle d) bone If a manufacturer changes the lines per frame and kept the imaging depth the same, ,what else would change? a) PRF b) period c) frame rate If a reflector is moved twice as far away from the transducer, how will this affect the time-of-flight of a sound pulse? a) quadruple it b) double it c) no change d) halve it If the frame rate increases and liners per frame is unchanged, what else must have happened? a) ultrasound speed increases b) frequency increases c) depth increases d) depth decreases If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged If the frequency of an ultrasound wave is doubled, what happens to the period? a) doubles b) halved c) remains the same d) 4x greater If the intensity is increased by 3dB, it: a) doubles b) triples c) halved d) quartered If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area is reduced in half, what has happened to the power? a) quadrupled b) doubled c) halved d) unchanged If the level of acoustic variable ranges from 55-105, what is the amplitude? a) 105 b) 50 c) 25 d) 55 - (CORRECT): 25 If the lines per frame is increased while the imaging depth is unchanged, then: a) frame rate increases b) number of shades of gray c) the frame rate decreases d) this cannot happen If the output of the machine is increased by 20dB, the beam intensity is increased: a) 100 times b) 1,000,000 times c) 20 times d) 10 times If the power of a sound wave is increased by a factor of 8, how many decibels is this? a) 3 dB b) 6 dB c) 9 dB d) 8 dB If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution? a) 0.5cm b) 5 cm c) 10 mm d) 1 cm If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is: a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged If the wave's amplitude is doubles, what happens to the power? a) nothing b) halved c) doubled d) quadrupled If we increase the the frequency, the near zone length is: a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged if wires in an AIUM test object do not appear in the same place as on the display, what is amiss? a) registration accuracy b) dynamic range accuracy c) near gain d) gray scale dynamic range Images on a videotape are stored using: a) magic b) magnetism c) paper d) computer memory Impedance is the _______ of _______ and ________. a) product, propagation speed and density b) sum, stiffness and density c) quotient, stiffness and propagation speed. d) difference, attenuation and density Impedance is the product of ________and ________. ensity and propagation speed In a B-mode display, which of the following axes are used for the amplitude of the reflection? a) z-axis b) m-axis c) x-axis d) y-axis e) time base axis In a real time scanner, which of these choices determines the maximum frame rate? a) depth of view b) pixel size c) attenuation coefficient d) beam diameter c) lateral resolution In an air-tissue interface, what percentage of the ultrasound is reflected? a) 0% b) near 0% c) 50% d) near 100% In soft tissue, the approximate attenuation coefficient in dB/cm is equal to 1/2 of ______ in ______. - (CORRECT): Frequency, in MHz In soft tissue: distance traveled ________ x round trip time a) propagation speed b) wavelength c) period d) PRF In which of these biological tissues will sound waves propagate most quickly? a) tendon b) blood c) lung d) fat e) amniotic fluid In which was is an annular phase array transducer different than a linear phase array transducer? a) the linear is steered mechanically b) the linear can have multiple focal zones c) the annular can create a sector shaped image d) the linear has higher pulse repetition frequency e) the annular is steered mechanically - (CORRECT): E Lateral resolution can be improved by: a) increasing gain b) decreasing gain c) focusing d) smoothing Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called: a) refractions b) reverberations c) shadows d) comets Post processing occurs when the image a) is played off of the VCR b) entered the A/D converter but before display c) after it leaves the A/D converter d) after it leaves the scan converter Power of sound has units of: a) dB b) dB/cm c) watts d) watts/cm^2 Pre-processing occurs a) when the patient is scanned b) when images are transferred to the VCR c) after the images are on the tape d) when the image exits the scan converter Propagation speed _______ x wavelength a) pulse duration b) period c) # of cycles in the pulse d) frequency Put in decreasing order of propagation speed. a) gas b) liquid c) solid b a Put in decreasing order: a) deca b) deci c) micro d) centi bdc Put in increasing order of propagation speed: a) air, bone, water b) bone, water, air c) air, water, bone d) water, air, bone e) bone, air, water Rectification and smoothing are components of which of the following? a) amplification b) decompensaation c) reject d) demodulation Refraction only occurs if there are: a) normal incidence & different impedances b) indirect intensity & different propagation speeds c) oblique incidence and different propagation speeds d) oblique frequency & identical impedences Reject is used to: a) adjust the appearance of highly reflective objects b) adjust the appearance of lowly reflective objects c) improve axial resolution d) improve digital scan convert sensitivity Snell's law describes the physics of _______. - (CORRECT): Refraction Sound Intensity decreased by 75% is how decibels of attenuation? a) 6dB b) 9 dB c) 5 dB d) 10 dB Sound waves are: a) electric b) mechanical, transverse c) spectral d) longitudinal, mechanical T or F: A mirror image artifact can appear along side of true anatomy - (CORRECT): False T or F: A sonographer's education ends when they become registered/ - (CORRECT): False T or F: A sound wave is a pressure wave made of compressions and rarefactions. - (CORRECT): True T or F: a system which was not working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the: a) transducer b) receiver c) monitor d) scan converter - true B - true C - true D - true T or F: Axial resolution is affected by focusing. - (CORRECT): False T or F: Doppler Shifts always occur if the sound source and receiver are in motion. - (CORRECT): False. T or F: Doppler Shifts are always created when the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other. - (CORRECT): False T or F: Doppler shifts occur if the source and the observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is 90deg. - (CORRECT): False T or F: Doppler shifts occur if the source and the observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is not 90deg. - (CORRECT): True T or F: Gray scale can be changed by the sonorgrapher - (CORRECT): True T or F: Later resolution also goes by these names: a) axial b) azimuthal c) longitudinal d) range ) false b) true c) false d) false T or F: Shadowing may result from high amounts of reflection of ultrasound energy. - (CORRECT): True T or F: Sonographers cannot effect a patient's exposure to acoustic energy. - (CORRECT): False T or F: The digital scan converter has a number of pixels assigned to each bit. - (CORRECT): False T or F: The manufacturer increases the number of scan lines per frame. As a result, the following may have to be decreased. a) frequency b) frame rate c) sector angle d) imaging depth e) power output ) false b) true c) true d) true e) false T or F: the sonographer cannot change, directly or indirectly, the duty factor of the machine. - (CORRECT): F T or F: there have not been any biological effects from ultrasound in the laboratory. - (CORRECT): F T or F. Doppler shifts always occur if the sound source and receiver are in motion. - (CORRECT): False The angle between the ultrasound pulse and the boundary between two media is 56deg. What is this called? a) direct incidence b) oblique incidence c) indirect incidence d) orthogonal incidence The angle between the ultrasound pulse and the boundary between two media is 90deg. What is this called? a) direct incidence b) oblique incidence c) indirect incidence d) orthogonal incidence The angle of incidence of an ultrasound beam is perpendicular to an interface. The two media have the same propagation speeds. What process cannot occur? a) refraction b) reflection c) transmission d) attenuation The consolidation of many images into a single frame best describes which of the following? a) dynamic range b) fill-in interpolation c) phase quadrate d) persistance The creation of an image by scanning from different angles best describes__________. a) spatial compounding b) fill-in interpolation c) phase quadrate d) persistance The Curie Temperature has which effect? a) the backing material delaminates from the active element b) the glue binding the crystal & matching layer melts c) the ferroelectric material is depolarized d) the matching layer changes its impedance The dB is defined as the _______ of two intensities. a) sun b) difference c) product d) ratio The distance to a target is doubled. The time-of-flight for a pulse to travel to the target and back is: a) 4 times b) 8 times c) the same d) 2 times The Doppler shift is a measure of: a) ratio of incident frequency to reflector frequency b) sum of incident frequency & reflected frequency c) difference between incident frequency & reflected frequency d) product of incident and reflected frequencies The Doppler shift is the _______ of two frequencies. a) sum b) difference c) product d) ratio The duty factor for CW ultrasound is a) 10.0 b) 1% c) 1.0 d) 0.0% The dynamic range is the ratio of the smallest to the largest ________ that a system can process without distortion. a) amplitude b) frequency c) phase delay d) spatial length The effects of soft tissue on ultrasound are called: a) acoustic proliferation properties b) dynamic effects c) acoustic propagation properties d) biological effects The Fresnel is the: a) focus b) near zone c) far zone d) penetration depth The interaction of microscopic bubbles and ultrasound form the basis for cavitation bioeffects. Which of the following forms of cavitation are most likely to produce microstreaming in the intracellular fluid and shear stresses? a) stable cavitation b) normal cavitation c) transient cavitation d) inertial cavitation e) active cavitation The more bits per pixel: a) the better the resolution b) the higher the pixel density c) the more shades of gray d) higher reliability The more pixels per inch: a) the better the temporal resolution b) the better is the spatial c) the more shades of gray d) the higher the reliability The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue is: a) 1% b) 22% c) 34% d) 99% The process of reducing the difference between the smallest and largest voltages is called ________. ompression The production of a voltage from deformation is called a) piezoelectricity b) impedance c) cogeneration d) flux The propagation speed of ultrasound in the AIUM test object is: a) 1m/s b) 1.54 m/s c) 1.54 mm/microsec d) 1km/s The range equation relates distance from the reflector to ______ and _______. a) time-of-flight, distance b) frequency, wavelength c) time-of-flight, propagation speed d) propagation speed, density The rayl is the unit of.... a) intensity b) reflectance c) density d) impedance The region from the transducer to the minimum beam cross-sectional area is the a) Fraunhofer zone b) Fresnel zone c) focus d) Snell's length The relative output of the ultrasound instrument is calibrated in dB and the operator increases the output by 60 dB. The beam intensity is increased by which of the following? a) 5% b) two times c) twenty times d) on hundred times e) on million times - (CORRECT): E The speed of sound of ultrasound in soft tissue is closest to: a) 1,540 km/sec b) 1.54 km/sec c) 1,500 m/s d) 1,540 mm/sec The time from the beginning of the pulse to the end of that pulse is _______? a) period b) pulse duration c) pulse length d) PRF The units of attenuation are ___ : this is a ___ scale A) mm/cm ; parametric B) dB/m ; multiplicative C) none ; relative D) dB ; logarithmic The units of pulse repetition frequency are: a) per minute b) microseconds c) mm/microseconds d) MHz To measure the ultrasound beam intensity, use a a) calibrated hydrophone b) lateral oscilloscope c) water filled phantom d) tissue equivalent phantom Traveling through the same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the propagation speed is a) unchanged b) doubled c) halved d) quartered Traveling through the same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the wavelength is a) unchanged b) doubled c) halved d) quartered True of False: Increasing the frequency increases the penetration depth. - (CORRECT): False True or False: With normal incidence, the angle is 180deg. - (CORRECT): False Under which circ*mstance is cavitation most likely to occur? a) high frequency and low power b) high intensity and high frequency c) low intensity and low frequency d) low frequency and high signal amplitude Under which circ*mstances is the mechanical index the highest? a) high frequency and low power b) high intensity and high frequency c) low intensity and low frequency d) low frequency and high signal amplitude Under which of the following conditions is later resolution improved? a) decreased beam diameter b) decreased pulse duration c) decrease imaging depth d) decrease pixel size e) decrease spatial pulse length Volume has which unit? m^3 What are the units of intensity? a) watts b) dB c) watts/cm^2 d) dB What are the units of longitudinal resolution? a) Hertz b) Rayls c) m/s d) feet What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the interference effects of scattered sound? a) spackle b) reverberation c) slice thickness d) speckle e) section thickness What can pulsed doppler measure that continuous wave cannot? a) duration b) speed c) velocity d) location e) frequency What component if the ultrasound unit contains the memory bank? a) transducer b) receiver c) display d) scan converter What determines the frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed transducer? a) voltage applied to PZT b) PZT thickness c) frequency of the system d) PRF of the pulser What Doppler angle is most inaccurate? a) 15-30deg b) 30-45deg c) 45-60deg d) 60-75deg What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modulus increases? a) faster b) slower c) unchanged What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modulus of the medium decreases? a) faster b) slower d) unchanged what happens to venous blood flow to the hear during expiration? a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged What increased patient exposure? a) exam time b) frequency c) video taping d) wavelength What information does doppler shift provide? a) flow b) cardiac output c) velocity d) speed What is a typical doppler frequency? - (CORRECT): 1-10,000Hz What is another name of longitudinal resolution? a) axial b) depth c) lateral d) tansverse or B What is displayed on the x-axis of an M-mode image? a) time b) time-of-flight c) reflector depth d) echo intensity e) red blood cell velocity What is displayed on the y-axis of an m-mode image? a) time b) time-of-flight c) reflector depth d) red blood cell velocity What is not the responsibility of the sonographer? a) clean the filters b) adjust the recorder c) adjust the converter matrix d) change paper What is the accuracy of reflector depth position on an A-mode, B-mode, or M-mode display called? a) range resolution b) horizontal calibration c) axial resolution d) speed error artifact e) depth calibration - (CORRECT): E What is the actual time that an ultrasound machine is creating a pulse? a) duty factor b) period c) pulse period d) pulse duration What is the correct notation for mega-milli-kilo-micro - (CORRECT): 10^6 - mega 10^-3 - milli 10^3 - kilo 10^-6 - micro What is the elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level? a) amplification b) decompensation c) reject d) demodulation What is the fraction of time that a transducer is transmitting? a) duty factor b) pulse duration c) period d) PRF spatial duration What is the Fraunhofer? a) focus b) near zone c) far zone d) penetration depth What is the location of the minimum cross-sectional area of the beam? a) focus b) fraunhofer zone c) far zone d) near zone What is the meaning of a thermal index 3? a) tissue temperature may rise to 3 degrees Fahrenheit b) tissue temperature will rise 3 degrees Celsius c) tissue temperature may rise 3 degrees Celsius d) microbubbles 3mm in diameter will burst What is the minimum value of the duty factor? a) 10.0 b) 1% c) 1.0 d) 0.0% What is the most typical doppler shift measured clinically? a) 3.5 Mhz b) 3,500,000 Hz c) 2 kHz d) 1,000 kHz e) 20,000 Hz What is the name of the receiver function that corrects the for attenuation? ompensation What is the production of deformation from voltage called? a) piezoelectricity b) impedance c) cogeneration d) flux What is the propagation speed determined by? a) wavelength b) intensity & density c) amplitude d) density and elasticity e) density and amplitude What is the range of frequencies created by medical diagnostic doppler transducers? a) 4-10 Hz b) 10-20 Mhz c) 1-10 kHz d) 2-20 Hz e) 2-10 MHz - (CORRECT): E What is the significance of gray scale variation in the spectrum of a pulsed wave doppler display? a) it represents the number of red blood cells creating the reflection. b) it represents the velocity of red blood cells c) it represents the speed of red blood cells d) it represents the convergence of red blood cell lamina e) it determines the ensemble length What is the standard for communication between medical imaging computers? a) ALARA b) PACS c) D-to-A conversion d) DICOM e) A-to-D conversion What may be the unit of amplitude? a) cm b) Hz c) msec d) watts e) none of the above What measures the output of a transducer? a) receiver b) display c) hydrometer d) hydrophone What the three attenuation components? - (CORRECT): scattering, reflection, and absorption When may a patient revoke their consent to be treated? a) at any time b) when it is safe to terminate the procedure c) never When the sound source and the receiver are not moving directly towards or away from directly towards or away from each other, the _____ of the angle between them enters into the calculation of doppler shift. a) average b) slope c) since d) cosine When the ultrasound machine displays only strong reflecting objects and nothing else, the sonographer should: a) adjust the far gain b) increase output power c) increase lateral resolution d) adjust the TGC Where are the harmonics created? a) receiver b) transducer c) tissues d) beam former Where does coded excitation originate? a) the demodulator b) the flux capacitor c) the transducer d) the pulser Which cannot be performed by the sonographer? a) adjust overall gain b) clean VCR recording heads c) clean pixels d) adjust TGC Which has the greatest amount of attenuation? a) bone b) fat c) water d) muscle Which is most likely to create Rayleigh Scattering? a) Red Blood Cells b) muscle c) scattering d) bone Which is not a part of the transducer? a) active crystal b) matching layer c) A/D converter d) wire Which is not an acoustic variable? a) density b) pressure c) distance d) intensity Which of the following best describes a sound beam? a) electrical impulses b) a collection of mechanical vibrations in the form of compressions and rarefactions c) a wave that man can hear d) electromechanical variations e) ionic vibrations Which of the following best describes the empirical approach to the study of bioeffects? a) cause-effect b) exposure-response c) risk-benefit d) causation-reaction e) effect-microstreaming Which of the following best describes the features of a sound wave and medium that determine the speed of sound in the medium? a) density of the medium and stiffness of the medium b) density of the medium and power of the sound beam c) elasticity of the medium and frequency of the sound beam d) stiffness of the medium and elasticity of the medium e) pulse repetition period of the sound wave and density of the medium Which of the following best describes the mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects? a) cause-effect b) exposure-response c) risk-benefit d) causation-reaction e) effect-microstreaming Which of the following choices determines the signal amplitude in the transducer of an ultrasound system? a) reflected intensity of the sound beam b) post processing c) edge enhancement filtering d) demodulation Which of the following clinical modalities has the lowest output intensity? a) pulsed doppler b) continuous wave doppler c) power doppler d) duplex scanning e) gray scale imaging - (CORRECT): E Which of the following conditions is axial resolution improved? a) decreases spatial pulse length b) decreased pulse amplitude c) decreased imaging depth d) decreased pixel size e) decreased beam diamete Which of the following has a propagation speed closest to "soft tissue"? a) muscle b) fat c) bone d) air Which of the following has the greatest influence on temporal resolution? a) propagation speed and the imaging depth b) frequency of sound and the propagation speed c) wavelength of sound and propagation speed d) output power & frequency Which of the following has the greatest output intensity? a) B-mode b) gray scale imaging c) CW Doppler d) pulsed Doppler Which of the following improves the signal-to-noise ratio? a) dynamic range b) frame averaging c) gray scale d) edge enhancement e) receiver gain Which of the following is associated with cavitation? a) thermal index b) Snell's law c) Avogadro's number d) mechanical index Which of the following is associated with power mode Doppler? a) poor temporal resolution and flash artifact b) lower sensitivity and high temporal resolution c) high sensitivity and high frame rates d) flash artifact and reduced sensitivity e) good temporal resolution and flash artifact Which of the following is determined by the source and the medium? a) frequency b) period c) propagation speed d) range resolution Which of the following is not a beam steering technique for a mechanical scan head? a) rotating wheel b) phased beam c) oscillating disc d) oscillating mirror Which of the following is proportional to the square of the amplitude? a) period b) attenuation c) power d) frequency e) speed Which of the following is the best lateral resolution? a) 15mm b) 6mm c) 0.06 cm d) 2cm Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is most relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy? a) reflector spacing and reflection coefficient b) attenuation of speed in the ultrasound medium c) reflector spacing and ultrasound attenuation in the medium d) reflector reflection coefficient and ultrasound attenuation in the medium e) reflector spacing and propagation speed. - (CORRECT): E Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging? a) 30 KHz b) 8 Mhz c) 8,000 Hz d) 3,000 Hz e) 15 Hz Which of the following will result in the greatest number of shades of gray in a digital image display? a) large pixels with many bits/pixels b) small pixels with a few bits/pixels c) many TV lines per frame d) high contrast e) narrow dynamic range Which of these boundaries will create the strongest reflection? a) air - lung b) air - soft tissue c) air - blood d) soft tissue - blood Which of these following choices best describes an ideal epidemiological bioeffects study? a) randomized and prospective b) benefits outweigh the risks c) retrospective and optimized d) ideal and non-biased e) prudent and safe Which of these intensities is the smallest? a) SATP b) SPTP c) SATA Which transducer would be best to image superficial structures? a) small diameter, high frequency b) small diameter, low frequency c) large diameter, high frequency d) large diameter, low frequency Which type of artifact appears most commonly with highly reflective objects? a) reverberations b) mirroring c) shadowing d) enhancement e) defocusing While propagating, a sound wave is refracted. Finally, it returns to the transducer. The system processes the sound wave as if it has: a) refracted and returned b) traveled in a straight line, reflected & returned c) traveled in a straight line, attenuated, reflected & returned While scanning in a water tank, what location in a sound beam has the highest intensity? a) focal point b) focal zone c) fresnel zone d) fraunhofer zone e) half value depth With good images on the display but not on the printer, one should: a) increase the gain b) check the scan head c) check the scan converter d) adjust the recorder With the presence of __________ we see more boundaries than there are reflecting surfaces. a) reverberations b) shadowing c) enhancement d) arrays You are performing a quality assurance study on an ultrasound system using a tissue equivalent phantom. You make an adjustment using a knob on the system console that changes the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible. What are you evaluating? a) resolution b) dynamic range c) system sensitivity d) vertical calibration e) slice thickness You enter a hospital room to perform an ultrasound exam. Which of the following should you do first? a) check the room number b) ask a nurse to confirm the patient's name c) ask the patient if they speak english d) check the patient's wristband for identification You enter a room only to find that the patient does not speak English. Which id the best to obtain consent? a) call for a hospital interpreter b) use sign language c) obtain it from a bilingual family member who is in the room d) point to the signature line of the consent form and have the patient sign it
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9. Ultrasound Physics Review | Davies Publishing - Davies Publishing
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